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Around SBN: Blake Griffin Slam Dunks: NBA Jam Style

To Topherstarr Re: Phillies Payroll

I appreciated your efforts on calculating the Phillies' 2012 payroll as it relates to the competitive balance tax. I have done something similar, and I'd like to discuss a couple of the "philosophical" approach differences between our lists.

You referenced Eric Seidman's well-done piece from last season noting certain parts of the calculation. However, I think Eric had two things incorrect. First, Eric treated team option buyouts as not being considered until that decision occurs. I believe the CBA is relatively clear on stating buyouts are to be treated as bonuses...that is...spread across the AAV of the guaranteed years. This changes the calculations on a bunch of players. One, of course, is Ryan Howard for whom the 6/$133M now becomes 6/$143M (and I'll state Eric's explanation of how to treat 2011 in Howard's total calc was extremely helpful).

The second main point of disagreement with that article comes in how Eric treats the 1/30th of player benefit costs. As I read the CBA, one note in that section that stands out to me is the sidenote that the demoninator of "30" will change if the number of MLB teams changes. This seems to clearly indicate the 1/30th share is 1/30th of what all teams have paid in cumulatively. Eric interprets it as 1/30th of what only the Phillies have paid in, and arrives at the $1M you use in your article.

I fear the figure could be much greater than that $1M, and could have a significant impact on the total calculation and available $. However, I have no clue how to estimate what that figure might be, and my google searches come up empty on finding any discussion of what that 1/30th could actually be per team. I was even hoping to potentially "reverse engineer" it if it's clear what MLB reached as the Phillies' total 2011 cap figure. Do we know what that was (has it been formally published).

Any feedback is appreciated.

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Two points.

1. This interpretation makes no sense. Why would teams be taxed on the entire league’s benefit payments?

2. Paragraphs!

by Phrozen on Dec 30, 2011 9:22 PM EST reply actions  

Rec

for #2 Paragraphs.

"Learning to eat soup with a knife"

by h2o_34_35_44 on Dec 31, 2011 1:35 AM EST up reply actions  

My Apologies

My apologies for the lack of paragraph breaks. I swear they were there when I typed the post. When I hit enter, they disappeared (and I don’t see where I can go back and edit them in). Either I need to learn to use an extra line break on this forum, or the browser I was using at the time didn’t read them properly. We’ll find out in 2 seconds.

As for #1, I’m not sure I totally understand the concept either, except there are some factors that might explain the equal splitting of 1/30th of all MLB benefits lumped together. For example, items included in those benefits include travel and accommodations at the AS game, which is somewhat beyond an individual team’s control. Good teams would tend to be hurt against the tax simply because they sent extra players to the game.

Looking at the logic from the flip side, if it truly means the Phillies are taxed on 1/30th of what only they paid in, can you explain why the denominator would change if the number of MLB teams change? Even in a vacuum, what sense does it make they’d pay 1/30th of what they paid in? Seems like an entirely random number.

by LastTrain on Dec 31, 2011 7:58 AM EST reply actions  

OK, took a few tries but the paragraphs are there now. Thanks for the admonition inspiring me to go back and fix it.

by LastTrain on Dec 31, 2011 8:12 AM EST reply actions  

CBA Wording

Here’s the actual wording from the 2007-2011 CBA that just expired, to help decipher the proper interpretation of the benefits. This is from XXIII, C, 1, which is “Definition of Actual Club Payroll”

(a) a 1/30th share of Player Benefit Costs (and a similar pro rata share if the number of Major League Clubs changes), as determined in section D below;

The word “share” and the part in parentheses is obviously what makes me lean toward 1/30th of what all clubs together have paid in.

Section D below then states this:

D. Benefits or Player Benefit Costs
(1) Definition: The Clubs’ Benefits or Player Benefit Costs for a particular contract year shall include the sums paid (or to be paid on a proper accrual basis for that Contract Year) by or on behalf of the Clubs for, to, or on behalf of present Players (and former Players when expressly noted) for:

The main thing I glean right from the start is the positioning of the apostrophe in the word “clubs.” If it were to come before the s, that would be a singular club, or the singular possessive. Since it’s actually after the s, that makes it the plural possessive, or inclusive of all MLB clubs. Also, the capitalized word Clubs later in the paragraph seems to suggest it’s talking about all 30 clubs together.

So in part (a) it says 1/30th of Player Benefit Costs, which it later defines in section D as the sums paid by the Clubs (plural) to Players.

by LastTrain on Dec 31, 2011 9:33 AM EST reply actions  

Well that sure seems to be what it’s saying, but I still can’t imagine why it would be the case.

by Phrozen on Dec 31, 2011 3:09 PM EST up reply actions  

All teams pay benefits at an equal rate. I believe it goes towards pensions, etc. and goes to continue to pay for retired players who get benefits from the players union.

"Sometimes, the balls that fall in are jam shots"...Hunter Pence, on BABIP

by Joecatz on Jan 1, 2012 7:33 PM EST up reply actions  

Estimated total?

Joe, that’s the interpretation I was presenting. The question is what’s an estimate of that total?

by LastTrain on Jan 1, 2012 10:40 PM EST via mobile up reply actions  

Ok, now I get it. I didn’t now each team paid in the same.

by Phrozen on Jan 2, 2012 6:41 PM EST up reply actions  

Imagine my surpise when I found my name in a FanPost title!

I’m flattered.

Seriously, though, thanks for the writeup.

Your analysis of the benefit program makes far more sense, thought I have no idea how to come up with an estimate for that figure. The way it was worded in the original article seemed arbitrary, but what do I know? (Maybe this is a lesson about using primary sources…) Any HR folk on TGP that could estimate what those costs might be?

Do you have a link to the part about the treatment of buyouts?

I was hoping to revisit these calculations with the new players and whatnot, but work has been interfering with my quality intenet time!

by topherstarr on Jan 5, 2012 1:59 PM EST reply actions  

E5b(1)

Well, it’s section E, 5, b, (1) in the 2007-2011 CBA (don’t know that the new CBA has been released to the public yet). Here’s the phrasing…

“General Rule: if a Uniform Player’s Contract contains a club option year or a player option year… and the player is to receive consideration upon the non-exercise of that option…then such option buyout shall be deemed a signing bonus.

I skipped some fluff parts, but the long and short is that an option buyout is to be treated as a bonus, which is spread across the term of the deal. It then goes on to clarify that if the option is exercised, the team subtracts this buyout portion that has already been counted against the team in prior years, or they can get a cash payment if they have paid a fee for going over the luxury cap.

So for Howard, if his $23M option is picked up for 2017 (fat chance), he would only count $13M against the cap that year because $10M has already been counted between 2011 and 2016.

by LastTrain on Jan 5, 2012 11:47 PM EST reply actions  

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